Monday, September 22, 2008

Debate with the Messianists

Dear Rabbi Ginsburg,

I apologize if I am trying your patience. I understand you point of view and your irritation.
I know that you put a substantial amount of effort into your video series and you blog, but, understandably, you didn't address every question.

Your belief that It's okay for Christians to believe in Jesus raises an interesting question for me. In Genesis 48:19 Jacob prophecies about Ephraim ben Joseph "that his seed shall become a multitude of nations." It's my understanding that only G-d knows which nations are of the seed of Ephraim. If some individuals in those nations put there faith in Jesus/Yahshua, would G-d spare them as H- would do with righteous Gentiles, or would they suffer the same fate as apostate Jews?

ME1.epharaim became a name for the 10 northern tribes which were lost. see hos. 5:3 and Isa. 7 1-17
2. your question is flawed because it assumes Jacob's conjecture has prophetic status. why do you assume that?
3. We can't link individuals to ehpraim any more even if jacob was prophecying.
4. point still stand that jews cannot claim to be jews and righteous and follow Jesus


Would you please be kind enough as to explain to this ignoramus what David is speaking about in verse 19 of Psalm 22? I can only think of one explanation and I don't want to annoy you by stating it. Please tell me how that verse should be understood. I will try not to be a pest about that verse hereafter.


ME Flaw #1 You assume author of the psalm was a prophet.
a. prove who wrote it
b. prove he/she was a prophet

ME:Jews have always understood it as a lament by David over the future exile, aND SOME THE THREAT AGAINST THE JEWS BY h
HAMAN IN ESTHER.
i don't think your an ignoramus. obviously you take bible seriously. Its just that your arguments were non-sequitors.

Also, with respect to your response about my suggestion (repeated below) that the Moshiach is actually named in Zechariah 3:8 and Zechariah 6:11 and 12). You replied, "never mentions JESUS!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!" but isn't "Jesus just the corrupted/anglicized form of the name YaHshua, which is also the same Hebraic name as the priest who is crowned in Zechariah 6:11?

ME You should learn hebrew. you just destroyed your whole argument. It says joshua who was the high priest, who was a real person, so obviouslyh could not have been some guy who was no high priest five hundred years later.

Thank you in advance for your consideration.

Shalom of HaShem to you and those you love,

No comments: